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Combined Defence Services Exam (II), 2019

Solved General Awareness Question Paper. Exam held on 08.09.2019.

1. The term soil impoverishment relates to which one of the following?

  • (A) Soil erosion
  • (B) Soil deposition
  • (C) Soil getting very deficient in plant nutrients
  • (D) Soil getting enriched with plant nutrients


2. Which one of the following is the correct sequential phase in the successional development of vegetation community in a habitat?

  • (A) Migration, Reaction, Stabilization and Nudation
  • (B) Migration, Stabilization, Reaction and Nudation
  • (C) Nudation, Migration, Reaction and Stabilization
  • (D) Reaction, Migration, Stabilization and Nudation


3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Soil Type)
(a) Oxisols (b) Vertisols (c) Histosols (d) Entisols
List-II (Major Characteristics)
1. Very rich in organic matter
2. Soil lacking horizons
3. Very old and highly weathered
4. Rich in clay content and highly basic

  • (A) a-3 b-1 c-4 d-2
  • (B) a-3 b-4 c-1 d-2
  • (C) a-2 b-1 c-4 d-3
  • (D) a-2 b-4 c-1 d-3


4. Which one of the following mountains separates Black Sea and Caspian Sea?

  • (A) Urals
  • (B) Caucasus
  • (C) Carpathians
  • (D) Balkan mountains


5. Rains caused by thunderstorms during the hot weather season (mid-March to mid-June) in Karnataka are called-

  • (A) Kalbaisakhi
  • (B) Mango Showers
  • (C) Loo
  • (D) Cherry blossoms


6. Which one of the following is the largest fresh water lake in India?

  • (A) Chilika
  • (B) Loktak
  • (C) Dal
  • (D) Wular


Directions (Q7 to Q10): The following 4 (four) items consist of two statements, Statement I and Statement II. Examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer using the code given below:

Code:
  • (A) Both the statements are individually true and Statement II is the correct explanation of Statement I.
  • (B) Both the statements are individually true but statement II is not the correct explanation of Statement I.
  • (C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
  • (D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

7. Statements:
I. The Greek travellers were most impressed by the fertility of India's soil and the energy and ability of her cultivators.
II. Ancient India knew the use of manure.



8. Statements:
I. Non-cooperation began in Punjab with the student movement inspired by Lala Lajpat Rai in January 1921.
II. The Sikh dominated central Punjab countryside was stirred by the powerful Akali Upsurge.



9. Statements:
I. The Oudh Kisan Sabha established in 1920 failed to bring under its wing any Kisan Sabhas.
II. The Oudh Kisan Sabha asked the Kisans to refuse to till bedakhli land, not to offer hari and begar.



10. Statements:
I. The United Provinces during Non-cooperation became one of the strongest bases of the Congress.
II. The literary outerop of Non-cooperation in Bengal was quite meagre compared to the days of the Swadeshi agitation.



11. Who were Alvars?

  • (A) Those who immersed in devotion to Vishnu
  • (B) Devotees of Shiva
  • (C) Those who worshipped abstract form of God
  • (D) Devotees of Shakti


12. Which one of the following is monatomic?

  • (A) Hydrogen
  • (B) Sulphur
  • (C) Phosphorus
  • (D) Helium


13. In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms-

  • (A) forming a three-dimensional structure
  • (B) in the same plane giving a hexagonal array
  • (C) in the same plane giving a square array
  • (D) in the same plane giving a pentagonal array


14. Soap solution used for cleaning purpose appears cloudy. This is due to the fact that soap micelles can-

  • (A) refract light
  • (B) scatter light
  • (C) diffract light
  • (D) polarize light


15. People prefer to wear cotton clothes in summer season. This is due to the fact that cotton clothes are-

  • (A) good absorbers of water
  • (B) good conveyors of heat
  • (C) good radiators of heat
  • (D) good absorbers of heat


16. Employing Chromatography, one cannot separate-

  • (A) radio-isotopes
  • (B) colours from a dye
  • (C) pigments from a natural colour
  • (D) drugs from blood


17. Consider the following statement:
"Atomic number of an element is a more fundamental property than its atomic mass." Who among the following scientists has made the above statement?

  • (A) Dmitri Mendeleev
  • (B) Henry Moseley
  • (C) J.J.Thomson
  • (D) Ernest Rutherford


18. Which one of the following acids is also known as Vitamin C?

  • (A) Methanoic acid
  • (B) Ascorbic acid
  • (C) Lactic acid
  • (D) Tartaric acid


19. Which one of the following is not found in animal cells?

  • (A) Free ribosomes
  • (B) Mitochondria
  • (C) Nucleolus
  • (D) Cell wall


20. Marsilea, Fern and Horse-tail are examples of which one of the following plant groups?

  • (A) Pteridophyta
  • (B) Bryophyta
  • (C) Gymnosperms
  • (D) Angiosperms


21. Which one of the following organisms is responsible for sleeping sickenss?

  • (A) Leishmania
  • (B) Trypanosoma
  • (C) Ascaris
  • (D) Helicobacter


22. Which one of the following body parts / organs of the human body does not have smooth muscles?

  • (A) Ureters
  • (B) Iris of eye
  • (C) Bronchi of lungs
  • (D) Biceps


23. What is Inter-cropping?

  • (A) It is the time period between two cropping seasons.
  • (B) It is growing of two or more crops in random mixture
  • (C) It is growing of two or more crops in definite row patterns
  • (D) It is growing of different crops on a piece of land in a preplanned succession


24. Magnification is-

  • (A) actual size of specimen / observed size
  • (B) observed size of specimen / actual size
  • (C) actual size of specimen - observed size
  • (D) observed size of specimen - actual size


25. Which one of the following cell organelles is known as 'suicide bags' of a cell?

  • (A) Lysosomes
  • (B) Plastids
  • (C) Endoplasmic reticulum
  • (D) Mitochondria


26. Which one of the following statements with regard to economic models is not correct?

  • (A) They involve simplification of complex processes
  • (B) They represent the whole or a part of a theory
  • (C) They can be expressed only through equations
  • (D) They help in gaining an insight into cause and effect


27. The value of the slope of a normal demand curve is-

  • (A) positive
  • (B) negative
  • (C) zero
  • (D) infinity


28. Which one of the following is an example of a price floor?

  • (A) Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Jowar in India
  • (B) Subsidy given to farmers to buy fertilizers
  • (C) Price paid by people to buy goods from ration shops
  • (D) Maximum Retail Price (MRP) printed on the covers/ packets of goods sold in India


29. Which one of the following factors is not considered in determining the Minimum Support Price (MSP) in India?

  • (A) Cost of production
  • (B) Price trends in international and domestic markets
  • (C) Cost of living index
  • (D) Inter-crop price parity


30. Which one of the following is not a dimension of the Human Development Index?

  • (A) A long and healthy life
  • (B) Knowledge
  • (C) Access to banking and other financial provisions
  • (D) A decent standard of living


31. Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio can be associated with which one of the following measurements in an economy?

  • (A) Rate of inflation
  • (B) Poverty index
  • (C) Income inequality
  • (D) Personal income


32. Consider the following statements:
1. Particles of matter intermix on their own.
2. Particles of matter have force acting between them.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2


33. Rate of evaporation increases with-

  • (A) an increase of surface area
  • (B) an increase in humidity
  • (C) a decrease in wind speed
  • (D) a decrease of temperature


34. If an object is at rest, then the time (X-axis) versus distance (Y-axis) graph-

  • (A) is vertical
  • (B) is horizontal
  • (C) has 45° positive slope
  • (D) has 45° negative slope


35. Consider the following statements about mixture-
1. A substance can be separated into other kinds of matter by any physical process.
2. Dissolved sodium chloride can be separated from water by the physical process of evaporation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2


36. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

  • (A) Elements are defined by the number of protons they possess
  • (B) Isobars are atoms having the same atomic number but different mass number
  • (C) The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of nucleons in its nucleus
  • (D) Valency is the combining capacity of an atom


37. If the speed of a moving magnet inside a coil increases the electric current in the coil-

  • (A) increases
  • (B) decreases
  • (C) reverses
  • (D) remains the same


38. The frequency (in Hz) of a note that is one octave higher than 500 Hz is-

  • (A) 375
  • (B) 750
  • (C) 1000
  • (D) 2000


39. Which of the following statements as per the Constitution of India are not correct?
1. The President tenders his resignation to the Chief Justice of India.
2. The Vice-President tenders his resignation to the President of India.
3. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is removed from his office in the like manner as the President of India.
4. A Judge of the Supreme Court can resign his office by writing under his hand addressed to the Chief Justice of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below-

  • (A) 1 and 2 only
  • (B) 3 and 4 only
  • (C) 1, 2 and 3
  • (D) 1, 3 and 4


40. Rajya Sabha has exclusive jurisdiction in-

  • (A) creation of new States
  • (B) declaring a war
  • (C) financial emergency
  • (D) authorizing Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List


41. Which one of the following Statements about the Government of India Act, 1919 is not correct?

  • (A) It extended the practice of communal representation
  • (B) It made the Central Executive responsible to the Legislature
  • (C) It is also known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
  • (D) It paved the way for federalism by clearly separating the responsibilities of the Centre and the Provinces


42. The concept of 'Four Pillar State', free from district magistracy for India was suggested by-

  • (A) Lala Lajpat Rai
  • (B) Ram Manohar Lohia
  • (C) Raja Rammohan Roy
  • (D) Subash Chandra Bose


43. Which one among the following is not a part of the Fundamental Rights (Part III) of the Constitution of India?

  • (A) Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
  • (B) Prohibition of employment of children in factories
  • (C) Participation of workers in management of industries
  • (D) Practice any profession, or to carry on any occupation, trade or business


44. Which one of the following is not a geographical requirement for cultivation of cotton?

  • (A) Temperature reaching 25°C or more in summer
  • (B) Moderate to light rainfall
  • (C) Medium loam soil with good drainage
  • (D) A growing period of at least 100 frost free days


45. Which one of the following statements regarding temperate coniferous forest biome is not correct?

  • (A) They are characterized by very little undergrowth
  • (B) They have a growing period of 50 to 100 days in a year
  • (C) There is low variation in annual temperature
  • (D) There is high range in spatial distribution of annual precipitation


46. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Peak)
(a) Anaimudi
(b) Doddabetta
(c) Dhupgarh
(d) Guru Shikhar
List-II (Name of Hill)
1. Nilgiri
2. Satpura
3. Aravali
4. Annamalai

  • (A) a-3 b-2 c-1 d-4
  • (B) a-3 b-1 c-2 d-4
  • (C) a-4 b-1 c-2 d-3
  • (D) a-4 b-2 c-1 d-3


47. Coral reefs are not found in which one of the following regions?

  • (A) Lakshadweep Islands
  • (B) Gulf of Kachchh
  • (C) Gulf of Mannar
  • (D) Gulf of Cambay


48. In which one of the following States is jute not significantly cultivated?

  • (A) Assam
  • (B) West Bengal
  • (C) Odisha
  • (D) Andhra Pradesh


49. Consider the following statements:
1. According to Mahavamsa, Ashoka turned to the Buddha's dhamma when his nephew Nigrodha preached the doctrine to him.
2. Divyavadana ascribes Ashoka being drawn to the Buddha's teaching to the influence of Samudra, a merchant-turned monk.
3. Dipavamsa speaks of Samudra, the 12-year-old son of a merchant, as the key figure in Ashoka's coming under the influence of the Buddhist dhamma.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) 1 and 2
  • (D) 1 and 3


50. Name the site that gives us valuable information about India's maritime links on the coromandel coast.

  • (A) Bharukachchha
  • (B) Karur
  • (C) Arikamedu
  • (D) Anuradhapura


51. Where are the largest quantity of cichlids found in India?

  • (A) Backwaters of Kerala
  • (B) Sunderbans
  • (C) Narmada
  • (D) Godavari


52. Which Greek philosopher coined the term 'Geography' in the 3rd century B.C.E.?

  • (A) Euclid
  • (B) Plato
  • (C) Eratosthenes
  • (D) Clio


53. Who is the author of the 16th century Sanskrit text, the Vraja Bhakti Vilasa which focuses on the Braj region in North India?

  • (A) Todar Mal
  • (B) Narayana Bhatta
  • (C) Chaitanya
  • (D) Rupa Goswami


54. Bose-Einstein Condensate is-

  • (A) solid state of matter
  • (B) fifth state of matter
  • (C) plasma
  • (D) state of condensed matter


55. The rate of evaporation of liquid does not depend upon-

  • (A) temperature
  • (B) its surface area exposed to the atmosphere
  • (C) its mass
  • (D) humidity


56. Rutherford's alpha particle scattering experiment on thin gold foil was responsible for the discovery of-

  • (A) electron
  • (B) proton
  • (C) atomic nucleus
  • (D) neutron


57. Food chain is-

  • (A) relationship between autotrophic
  • (B) exchange of genetic material between two organisms
  • (C) passage of food (and thus energy) from one organism to another
  • (D) modern entrepreneur establishment providing food outlets


58. Which one of the following is active transport?

  • (A) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from respiration
  • (B) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient without the use of energy
  • (C) It is the movement of a substance against a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from photosynthesis
  • (D) It is the movement of a substance along a diffusion gradient with the use of energy from respiration


59. Chlorophyll in photosynthetic prokaryotic bacteria is associated with-

  • (A) plastids
  • (B) membranous vesicles
  • (C) nucleoids
  • (D) chromosomes


60. What do you mean by 'Demographic Dividend'?

  • (A) A rise in the rate of economic growth due to a higher share of working age people in a population
  • (B) A rise in the rate of literacy due to development of educational institutions in different parts of the country
  • (C) A rise in the standard of living of the people due to the growth of alternative livelihood practices
  • (D) A rise in the gross employment ratio of a country due to government policies


61. Which one of the following equals Personal Disposable Income?

  • (A) Personal Income-Direct taxes paid by households and miscellaneous fees, fines, etc.
  • (B) Private Income-Saving of Private Corporate Sectors-Corporation Tax
  • (C) Private Income - Taxes
  • (D) Total expenditure of Households-Income Tax-Gifts received


62. The working of the price mechanism in a free-market economy refers to which one of the following?

  • (A) The interplay of the forces of demand and supply
  • (B) Determination of the inflation rate in the economy
  • (C) Determination of the economy's propensity to consume
  • (D) Determination of the economy's full employment output


63. Indexation is a method whose use can be associated with which one of the following?

  • (A) Controlling inflation
  • (B) Nominal GDP estimation
  • (C) Measurement of savings rate
  • (D) Fixing of wage compensation


64. A car undergoes a uniform circular motion. The acceleration of the car is-

  • (A) zero
  • (B) a non-zero constant
  • (C) a non-zero but not a constant
  • (D) None of the above


65. An echo is heard after 5 seconds of the production of sound which moves with a speed of 340 m/s. What is the distance of the mountain from the source of sound which produced the echo?

  • (A) 0.085 km
  • (B) 0.85 km
  • (C) 0.17 km
  • (D) 1.7 km


66. A 100 W electric bulb is used for 10 hours a day. How many units of energy are consumed in 30 days?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 10
  • (C) 30
  • (D) 300


67. Which of the following statements relating to the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India is not correct?

  • (A) It relates to the special provision for administration of certain areas in the States other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
  • (B) Tribal advisory councils are to be constituted to give advice under the Fifth Schedule
  • (C) The Governor is not authorized to make regulations to prohibit or restrict the transfer of land by, or among members of the Scheduled Tribes
  • (D) The Governors of the States in which there are scheduled areas have to submit reports to the President regarding the administration of such areas


68. Consider the following statements with regard to the formation of new States and alteration of boundaries of existing States:
1. Parliament may increase the area of any State.
2. Parliament may diminish the area of any State.
3. Parliament cannot alter the boundary of any State.
4. Parliament cannot alter the name of any State.
Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

  • (A) 1 and 2
  • (B) 2 and 3
  • (C) 3 and 4
  • (D) 4 only


69. Consider the following statements:
1. The Advocate General of a State in India is appointed by the President of India upon the recommendations of the Governor of the concerned State.
2. As provided in the Code of Civil Procedure, High Courts have original appellate advisory jurisdiction at the State level.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2


70. Which one of the following forms of Constitutions contains the features of both the Unitary and Federal Constitution?

  • (A) Unitary
  • (B) Federal
  • (C) Quasi-Federal
  • (D) Quasi-Unitary


71. Which one of the following Indian States has no international boundary?

  • (A) Bihar
  • (B) Chhattisgarh
  • (C) Uttarakhand
  • (D) Megahalaya


72. Which one of the following Indian cities is not located on a river bank?

  • (A) Agra
  • (B) Bhagalpur
  • (C) Bhopal
  • (D) Kanpur


73. Where are Jhumri Telaiya and Mandar Hills situated?

  • (A) Jharkhand
  • (B) Bihar
  • (C) Assam
  • (D) West Bengal


74. Which one of the following is not correct regarding South India?

  • (A) Diurnal range of temperature is less
  • (B) Annual range of temperature is less
  • (C) Temperature is high throughout the year
  • (D) Extreme climatic conditions are found


75. Which one of the following statements regarding sex composition is not correct?

  • (A) In some countries, sex ratio is expressed as number of males per thousand females
  • (B) In India, sex ratio is expressed as number of females per thousand males
  • (C) At world level, sex ratio is about 102 males per 100 females
  • (D) In Asia, there is high sex ratio


76. Who among the following has given the concept of Human Development?

  • (A) Amartya Sen
  • (B) Mahbub-ul-Haq
  • (C) Sukhamoy Chakravarty
  • (D) G.S.Chaddha


77. Which one of the following regions is an important supplier of citrus fruits?

  • (A) Equatorial region
  • (B) Mediterranean region
  • (C) Desert region
  • (D) Sub-humid region


78. Who were the Nayanars?

  • (A) Those who were immersed in devotion to Vishnu
  • (B) Those who were devotees of Buddha
  • (C) Leaders who were devotees of Shiva
  • (D) Leaders who were devotees of Basveshwara


79. Martch List I and List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I (Ethnic Territorial Segment)
(a) Marute Makkal
(b) Kuravan Makkal
(c) Mullai Makkal
(d) Neytal Makkal
List-II (Related Occupational Pattern)
1. Pastoralists
2. Fishing people
3. Ploughmen
4. Hill people

  • (A) a-3 b-1 c-4 d-2
  • (B) a-2 b-1 c-4 d-3
  • (C) a-3 b-4 c-1 d-2
  • (D) a-2 b-4 c-1 d-3


80. Who among the following Mughal emperors was a follower of the Naqshbandiyya leader, Khwaja Ubaydullah Ahrar?

  • (A) Babur
  • (B) Humayun
  • (C) Akbar
  • (D) Jahangir


81. Arrange the following in the chronological order of their implementation:
1. The Indian Factory Act(First)
2. The Vernacular Press Act
3. The Morley-Minto Reforms
4. The Cornwalis Code
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (A) 4, 2, 1, 3
  • (B) 2, 4, 1, 3
  • (C) 3, 4, 1, 2
  • (D) 2, 1, 3, 4


82. Article 371A of the Constitution of India provides special privileges to-

  • (A) Nagaland
  • (B) Mizoram
  • (C) Sikkim
  • (D) Manipur


83. How many Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956?

  • (A) Eight
  • (B) Seven
  • (C) Six
  • (D) Five


84. Which provision of the Constitution of India provides that the President shall not be answerable to any Court in India for the exercise of powers of His office?

  • (A) Article 53
  • (B) Article 74
  • (C) Article 361
  • (D) Article 363


85. Which law prescribes that all proceedings in the Supreme Court shall be in English language?

  • (A) Article 145 of the Constitution of India
  • (B) Article 348 of the Constitution of India
  • (C) The Supreme Court Rules, 1966
  • (D) An Act passed by the Parliament


86. The total number of members in the Union Council of Ministers in India shall not exceed-

  • (A) 10% of the total number of members of the Parliament
  • (B) 15% of the total number of members of the Parliament
  • (C) 10% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha
  • (D) 15% of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha


87. Which one of the following is the most noticeable characteristic of the Mediterranean climate?

  • (A) Limited geographical extent
  • (B) Dry summer
  • (C) Dry winter
  • (D) Moderate temperature


88. Which one of the following rivers takes a 'U' turn at Numcha Barwa and enters India?

  • (A) Ganga
  • (B) Tista
  • (C) Barak
  • (D) Brahmaputra


89. What was the Dutt-Bradley thesis?

  • (A) The Working Committee of the Indian National Congress decided that Congress should play a crucial role in realising the independence of India
  • (B) The Socialist party decided to play foremost part in anti-imperialist struggle
  • (C) Revolutionary socialist Batukeshwar Dutt put forth a ten-point plan to work for the success of anti-imperialist front
  • (D) It was a Communist party document, according to which the National Congress could play a great part and a foremost part in realising the anti-imperialist people's front


90. The khuntkatti tenure was prevalent in which one of the following regions of India during the British Colonial Rule?

  • (A) Bundelkhand
  • (B) Karnataka
  • (C) Chota Nagpur
  • (D) Madras Presidency


91. Who was the author of the book 'Plagues and Peoples'?

  • (A) William H. McNeill
  • (B) W.I.Thomas
  • (C) Rachel Carson
  • (D) David Cannadine


92. Who among the following started the Indian Agriculture Service?

  • (A) Lord Curzon
  • (B) William Bentinck
  • (C) Lord Minto
  • (D) Lord Rippon


93. 'Chandimangala' was composed in which one of the following languages during the 16th century CE?

  • (A) Sanskrit
  • (B) Tamil
  • (C) Bengali
  • (D) Oriya


94. In December 1962, which Soviet leader declared that China was responsible for the Sino-Indian War of 1962?

  • (A) Khrushchev
  • (B) Bulganin
  • (C) Suslov
  • (D) Malenkov


95. Which of the following statements with regard to the 'Make in India' initiative is/are correct?
1. It was launched in the year 2018
2. Its objective is to foster innovation.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2


96. Which one of the following States does not have a Legislative Council?

  • (A) Karnataka
  • (B) Telangana
  • (C) Jammu and Kashmir
  • (D) Arunachal Pradesh


97. What is SWAYAM?

  • (A) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Young Aspiring Minds
  • (B) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth Aspiring Minds
  • (C) Study Webs of Active-Learning for Youth Aspiration Minds
  • (D) Study Webs of Active Learning for Youth of Aspiration Minds


98. Which one of the following is not enumerated in the Constitution of India as a fundamental duty of citizens of India?

  • (A) To safeguard public property
  • (B) To protect and improve the natural environment
  • (C) To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry
  • (D) To promote international peace and security


99. Who among the following in his book "The Managerial Revolution" argued that a managerial class dominated all industrial societies, both capitalist and communist, by virtue of its technical and scientific knowledge and its administrative skills?

  • (A) James Burnham
  • (B) Robert Michels
  • (C) Gaetano Mosea
  • (D) Vilfredo Pareto


100. Which one of the following conditions laid down in the Constitution of India for the issue of a writ of Quo-Warranto is not correct?

  • (A) The office must be public and it must be created by a Statute
  • (B) The office must be a substantive one
  • (C) There has been a contravention of the Constitution or a Statute in appointing such person to that office
  • (D) The appointment is in tune with a statutory provision


101. Which one of the following is the motto of NCC?

  • (A) Unity and Discipline
  • (B) Unity and Integrity
  • (C) Unity and Command
  • (D) Unity and Service


102. Which one of the following departments is not under the Ministry of Home Affairs?

  • (A) Department of Official Languages
  • (B) Department of Border Management
  • (C) Department of Jammu & Kashmir Affairs
  • (D) Department of Legal Affairs


103. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1.India is a signatory to the United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification(UNCCD)
2.Ministry of Home Affairs is the nodal Ministry in the Government of India for the UNCCD.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2


104. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, a statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of the Government of India has to be laid before the Parliament in respect of every financial year?

  • (A) Article 110
  • (B) Article 111
  • (C) Article 112
  • (D) Article 113


105. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation was founded in-

  • (A) Colombo
  • (B) Islamabad
  • (C) Kathmandu
  • (D) Dhaka


106. Which one of the following countries is not a founding member of the New Development Bank?

  • (A) Brazil
  • (B) Canada
  • (C) Russia
  • (D) India


107. The Public Financial Management System (PFMS) is a web-based online software application designed, developed, owned and implemented by the-

  • (A) Department of Financial Services
  • (B) Institute of Government Accounts and Finance
  • (C) Controller General of Accounts
  • (D) National Institute of Financial Management


108. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I(Institute)
(a) National Institute of Ayurveda
(b) National Institute of Homoeopathy
(c) National Institute of Unani Medicine
(d) National Institute of Siddha
List-II(Location)
1. Chennai
2. Bengaluru
3. Kolkata
4. Jaipur

  • (A) a-1 b-2 c-3 d-4
  • (B) a-1 b-3 c-2 d-4
  • (C) a-4 b-3 c-2 d-1
  • (D) a-4 b-2 c-3 d-1


109. Which of the following statements about 'Invest India' is/are correct?
1. It is a joint venture (not for profit) company.
2. It is the National Investment Promotion and Facilitation Agency of India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (A) 1 only
  • (B) 2 only
  • (C) Both 1 and 2
  • (D) Neither 1 nor 2


110. The National Dope Testing Laboratory functions under-

  • (A) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  • (B) Ministry of Science and Technology
  • (C) Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports
  • (D) Ministry of Home Affairs


111. In how many phases was the general election, 2019 conducted in India?

  • (A) 6 phases
  • (B) 7 phases
  • (C) 8 phases
  • (D) 9 phases


112. Which one of the following statements about the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation is not correct?

  • (A) Its permanent Secretariat is located at Jeddah
  • (B) It endeavours to safeguard and protect interest of the Muslim world in the spirit of promoting international peace and harmony among various people of the world
  • (C) It is the largest inter-governmental organization of the world
  • (D) It has consultative and co-operative relations with the UN


113. Who among the following won the Italian Open Women's Tennis Singles Title 2019?

  • (A) Karolina Pliskova
  • (B) Johanna Konta
  • (C) Naomi Osaka
  • (D) Serena Williams


114. Which among the following 1N ship(s) participated in the SIMBEX-19?
1. INS Kolkata
2. INS Shakti
3. INS Vikrant
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  • (A) 1,2 and 3
  • (B) 1 and 2 only
  • (C) 2 and 3 only
  • (D) 1 only


115. 'Triples' is a new format of-

  • (A) Boxing
  • (B) Judo
  • (C) Chess
  • (D) Badminton


116. Who among the following was the Chairman of the Committee on Deepening Digital Payments appointed by the RBI?

  • (A) H.R. Khan
  • (B) Nandan Nilekani
  • (C) N.R. Narayana Murthy
  • (D) Sanjay Jain


117. 'The Sasakawa Award' of United Nations is given in recognition of the work done in the field of-

  • (A) Disaster Reduction
  • (B) Peace Keeping
  • (C) Health Services
  • (D) Poverty Alleviation


118. Why was India's G.S. Lakshmi in news recently?

  • (A) She was first Indian to play cricket for an English Country Glub
  • (B) She became the first female ICC match referee
  • (C) She was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for the year 2019
  • (D) She was the recipient of the Booker Prize in the year 2019


119. Who among the following was elected as the President of Indonesia for the second term?

  • (A) Joko Widodo
  • (B) Prabowo Subianto
  • (C) Sandiaga Uno
  • (D) Jusuf Kalla


120. In India, May 21 is observed as-

  • (A) NRI Day
  • (B) National Youth Day
  • (C) National Technology Day
  • (D) National Anti-Terrorism Day



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